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*To*: voynich@xxxxxxxx*Subject*: Re: Curious coincidence*From*: "Gabriel Landini" <G.Landini@xxxxxxxxxx>*Date*: Mon, 12 Jun 2000 10:26:09 +0100*Delivered-to*: reeds@research.att.com*In-reply-to*: <200006112307.UAA23848@coruja.dcc.unicamp.br>*Organization*: The University of Birmingham, UK.*References*: <39440A46.BF2E8E2C@voynich.nu>*Reply-to*: G.Landini@xxxxxxxxxx*Sender*: jim@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

On 11 Jun 2000, at 20:07, Jorge Stolfi wrote: > Well, the variance of a 0-1 coin toss is 1/2, right? So the standard > deviation of the sum of N = 34806 independent coin tosses should be > sqrt(N/2) = 131. > > Thus 40 ( = 80/2) is a bit better than what we would expect, > but still not suspiciously too good, I would say. SD makes sense only if the distribution is normal... but coin tossing is not a gaussian process. What is that calculation trying to explain? Please do not take this as an impertinent comment. I just don't understand what is the relation. Cheers, Gabriel

**Follow-Ups**:**Re: Curious coincidence***From:*Jorge Stolfi

**References**:**Re: Curious coincidence***From:*Rene Zandbergen

**Re: Curious coincidence***From:*Jorge Stolfi

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