Re: Latin pronounciation

["Rafal T. Prinke" <rafalp@xxxxxxxxxx>]

pm232@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> 
> I have heard stories about an old botany professor at Cornell (long
> before my short lifetime) who was so scrupulous in his Latin
> pronunciation that his colleagues and students couldn't understand what
> he was saying much the time. When speaking of grapes, for example, he
> would say "wee-tis" (Vitis) and "wee-ta-kee-aye" (Vitaceae)instead of
> the common but incorrect "vy-tis" and "vy-tay-see-ee".

I wonder when the modern/national modifications were introduced?
Surely, from the Medieval period until the 17th and probably 18th c.
all the learned men of Europe had to use roughly the same 
pronounciation so that they could communicate. For example,
when Dee and Kelley went to Poland and Bohemia, and made a few
trips to Germany, the only way they could communicate with
Laski, Rozmberk or Khunrath was via Latin so what was
the pronounciation then? 

Best regards,

Rafal