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Re: OT, was Ptolemy in Re: VMs: Traditional Astrology and the Flat Earth
To think, this question was not rhetorical!
I wish I had more concrete information; as far as I
can tell, Ptolemy made and recorded repeated
observations in his work on Optics, but I don't know
if he applied the same methods to this problem, or
not. It sounds from what he is saying as though he
had compared objective measurements over time, but
whether he recorded or published these or not, I don't
If I ever find out, I'll get back to you on this.
--- elvogt@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> Zitat von Pamela Richards <spirlhelix@xxxxxxxxx>:
> > Hi, Elmar
> > Calculating the difference in the heavens in a
> > different time and location is the essence
> > constructing a horoscope. Ptolemy knew that the
> > set at different times for different longitudes
> > (distances east and west).
> And this is exactly my question: How did he measure
> time with the necessary
> accuracy? Or, which amounts to the same, how did he
> synchronize events which
> were seperated by a considerable distance? A rough
> estimate would assume a
> difference of some 15km as the equivalent of 1', the
> smallest increment he
> would be able to measure.
> I'm honestly curious, because having studied physics
> I appreciate the
> experimental problem...
> > No news of the Monkees?
> Currently, I favour the Batman hypothesis.
> > Warmly,
> > Pam
> debitel.net Webmail
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